John 14:6 -- "There is no way to the Father but through me". What's that supposed to mean? To me it sounds pretty exclusivist, and the context around it does not seem to contradict exclusivism. Is there something else he had in mind? Of course, in general I see the Book of John as promoting the Incarnation much more than the other books.
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timeasmymeasure
Can you explain this to me?
Date: 2005-06-08 06:19 pm (UTC)To me it sounds pretty exclusivist, and the context around it does not seem to contradict exclusivism. Is there something else he had in mind?
Of course, in general I see the Book of John as promoting the Incarnation much more than the other books.